Problem 16.4 Easy Free 1 variation

Fair Gambler's Ruin

A particle performs a simple symmetric random walk on the integer points 0,1,…,100,1,\dots,10, moving to a neighbouring point with probability 1/21/2 at each step and stopping as soon as it reaches 00 or 1010. Starting from 66, find the probability that it is absorbed at 1010 rather than at 00.

Work it out, then compare with the answer.

SolutionShow the worked solution

Key idea. The position is a martingale, so the hitting probability is linear in the starting point.

Let pkp_k be the probability of absorption at 1010 starting from kk. Conditioning on the first step gives

pk=12pk−1+12pk+1(1≤k≤9),p0=0,p10=1.p_k=\tfrac12 p_{k-1}+\tfrac12 p_{k+1}\qquad(1\le k\le 9),\qquad p_0=0,\quad p_{10}=1.

The recurrence says pk+1−pk=pk−pk−1p_{k+1}-p_k=p_k-p_{k-1}. So the increments are constant and pkp_k is linear in kk. The boundary values then force pk=k/10p_k=k/10.

Alternative. Let XnX_n be the position and TT the absorption time.

  • T<∞T<\infty almost surely. From any interior point, ten consecutive steps in the same direction (probability 2−102^{-10}) force absorption, so P(T>10m)≤(1−2−10)m→0\mathbb{P}(T>10m)\le(1-2^{-10})^m\to0.
  • Xn∧TX_{n\wedge T} is a martingale bounded between 00 and 1010.
  • Optional stopping therefore gives 6=E[XT]=10 P(XT=10)6=\mathbb{E}[X_T]=10\,\mathbb{P}(X_T=10).

Either way, starting from 66:

P(absorbed at 10)=610=35\boxed{\mathbb{P}(\text{absorbed at }10)=\frac{6}{10}=\frac35}

Variations

The same idea with a twist. Each solution gives only the changed step.

Variation 16.4a

Alice and Bob start with $15 and $10 respectively and repeatedly bet $1 on independent fair coin flips, each betting on the opposite outcome. If Alice ever goes bankrupt, she may buy back in once for $15 and keep playing against Bob, who retains whatever he holds at that moment; if she goes bankrupt a second time she loses outright. Find the probability that Bob is the one who eventually goes bankrupt.

Work it out, then compare with the answer.

Solution

Alice’s fortune performs a fair walk, so by the main result the probability of ruin is linear in the stakes.

First phase: Alice has 1515 and the total is 2525. She goes bankrupt first with probability 1025=25\frac{10}{25}=\frac25, and Bob then holds 2525.

Second phase: after the rebuy Alice has 1515 against Bob’s 2525. Because the coin flips are independent, this is a fresh fair game on a total of 4040. Alice is ruined in it with probability 2540=58\frac{25}{40}=\frac58.

Alice loses the whole contest only if she is ruined in both phases, which has probability 25⋅58=14\frac25\cdot\frac58=\frac14.

This is the same as Alice starting with 3030 against 1010, where Bob’s ruin probability is 3040\frac{30}{40}. Hence

P(Bob goes bankrupt)=34\boxed{\mathbb{P}(\text{Bob goes bankrupt})=\frac34}